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Re: two-part questionFrom: Maggie (anonymous@obgyn.net)Tue, 7 May 2002 16:48:09 -0500 (CDT)
At Tue, 7 May 2002, janet wrote: > >I was extremely irresponsible in my early teenage years; I became >pregnant three times, and had three abortions. I have since changed my >behavior considerably, and have been practicing celibacy for almost four >years. I have recently met a man, however, who I care about a great >deal. We would like to begin a sexual relationship, and, thus, my two >questions. Is it possible that if I choose to marry this man and have a >child, that — as a result of the abortions - I will be unable to >conceive or carry a pregnancy to full term? Probably not. There is some evidence that many abortions can have an effect on a woman's fertility, however. If the abortions were all done properly, I dont think you have a thing to worry about. My mom had 5 abortions shortly after they became legal, so I'm sure that not all of them were done the correct way. She has 2 kids, my sister and I. According to her, she had "NO problems getting pregnant!"
And, is it possible that the
>abortions resulted in a lack of vaginal tightness (I was told this I'm not sure. I guess it makes sense, since you're dialated to perform the procedures. But I'm sure that it's different for every woman, and depends on your age, how far along in your pregnancies you were before you had the abortions, etc. Take care,
-- Maggie
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