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ER QuestionFrom: anonymous@obgyn.netWed, 14 May 1997 08:13:49 -0400 (EDT)
I have mentioned this in a previous posting (about male vs. female docs) but I'd like to ask it in a new light. The question is: As a patient of a 4-doc OB group, should I have expected the doc on call to come to the ER when I was 10.5 weeks pregnant and hemorhaging (1000cc)? I had called the service from home before going to the ER, and directly informed the doc that I had bled through 3 pads, two towels, and a rug in less than 20 minutes. The blood was splashed waist-high throughout the bathroom. The group had priviledges at one hospital, and the OB on-call was not in the hospital. The ER doc called the OB from my ER room, and it was clear that the OB was at home. The ER doc wanted to transfuse me and keep me overnight. The OB ordered I be sent home. I was not an HMO patient; I have an 80/20 indemnity plan. Some weeks later, I spoke with "my" OB from the group. He'd been on vacation at the time of my ER visit. He was unclear as to what had happened as there were no notes in my chart pertaining to that date. I got copies of the hospital records and the ER doc clearly notes the telephone interaction with the OB. (I now have a copy of my office chart, as well. Why were there no notes in my office chart?) I just can't shake my feeling of disappointment, that my crisis didn't matter enough to the OB group. The baby survived that incident and was checked frequently (by a perinatal group) prior to being diagnosed as an IUFD 5 weeks later. I'm not looking for litigation, but I would like to know if I had the wrong expectations that a doc would come to the ER for what was coded by the hospital as a serious event. I would truly understand if she had been upstairs with a delivery or in the OR... For the docs who read this list...when would you GO or NOT GO to the ER to see a patient of your group? Luanne
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