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Two (oops, 4 rather verbose) QuestionsFrom: AMS (anonymous@obgyn.net)Fri, 17 Nov 2000 19:28:08 -0600 (CST)
1: Age 49, regular periods until July of this year, Prolonged, intermittantly heavy bleeding late July through early October, first MDA, than 14 days of levlen, then 10 days nothing, then MDA for days 10 through 26. Then supposed to be period, not period, on eighth day following MDA withdrawal, had yearly exam, gyn said cervical mucous indicated ovulation (consistant with my usual ovulatory quarter sized pain). So now 16 days later, still no period. The office nurse said to go back on MDA which I hated. My question: since the period is supposed to prevent hyperplasia of the endometrium and more prolonged heavy bleeding, do we have to use MDA? What about using the levlen again - I felt great on that (better than I have in many months.) If this is crazy suggestion, I won't bother my gyn (you guys...and gals, are volunteers, right and don't have to answer us unless you want to?) 2. The reason I was talking to the nurse in the first place is my pap came back with abnormalities. I got a copy and I understand everything but the "possible LGSIL". What is that ( the first part said atypical squamous cells of undertermined significance, favor dysplasia). I do know I was getting hints of a yeast infection that day for which my husband put me on diflucan 2 days later. Unstead of colposcopy (sp) with possible biopsy, would there be irrevocable harm in waiting 3 months and repeating the pap (I got my husband to go along with this until I mentioned the Merck manual said the false negative rate in paps can range from 15 - 40 percent.) My sisters have had numerous slightly abnormal paps that turn out to be nothing and go away unassisted. Also, who better to follow mild osteopenia, my ob or internist? Thank you.
-- Amy
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