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Luteal phase ?, Dr. Montgomery

From: Kris (anonymous@obgyn.net)
Tue, 8 Aug 2000 14:31:31 -0500 (CDT)


I think it was about a week ago that I first read your take on "luteal phase defects". I'm still a bit confused by it. If I'm understanding correctly, a woman does not have LPD if she ovulates. If that's the case, than an 8 day LP is normal if ovulation has been documented, right? If this is what your saying, than I'm lost. Don't you need a LP longer than that to have a chance at pregnancy?

I'm not trying to be difficult here. I really want to understand, since this directly affects me. Maybe it's just the words being used. I suppose you could call a short luteal phase "normal", and just not "acceptable" or "functional".

If you've got the time to clarify this, I'd really like to know. Is there some place that I can read the logic behind this way of thinking? Thanks, Kris




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