Can an anticoagulant dosage be fixed from mere thrombocyte count ? Need advice badly

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I am 33yrs old and into the 15th week of my first pregnancy. I had a deep venous thrombosis 4yrs back as a reaction to a low dosage oral contraceptive pill. My gyno had said that it was essential that I go on anticoagulants after the first trimester. He, however, was not going to fix the dosage and asked me to go to a General Practitioner fot this. Now, the GP I went to is highly reluctant to fix a dosage for the anticoagulant as she says that the report of my blood test is absolutely normal. She wants my gyno to have a look at the blood test report but he is not willing to see me before my next appointment with him which is on 29th April. I am not someone well versed in medical know-how but on going through the blood test report I find that there is a blood count ... (including a count of thrombocytes, I admit, this being well within the normal range)... and a measure of things like haemoglobin, uric acid and various minerals but no sign of a coagulation test (INR/PT or aPPT) having been carried out. Can it at all be possible to prescribe a dosage of anticoagulants based on mere thrombocyte count ? Or is this GP just unaware of what to do ? Should I get myself to a cardiovascular specialist to avoid more delay on this ? Any advice would be appreciated as I am really confused and beginning to feel rather frustrated on this issue ... Thanks in advance.

Sarbari

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