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Re: Incompetent cervix question for HSM (For Dr McIntosh)From: Anonymous (anonymous@obgyn.net)Tue, 26 Dec 2000 21:19:30 -0600 (CST)
Dr McIntosh I mean no disrespect but wondered if I might probe you further about your statements? I really want to try and understand where you are coming from on your thoughts. Hypothetically if a woman presented to you in L&D because they were worried about spotting they were having, upon exam advanced dilation say +4 +5was found with bulging membranes (not ruptured yet) no fever and painless contractions every 2-3 minutes. All effrots of meds to stop contractions failed therefor water breaks and delivery occurs. This all happening before 24 weeks (say approx weeks 16- 18). If you would never place a diagnosis of an incompetent cervix then what would you attribute the loss too? A chromosome error? Or do you diagnose the patient as loss due to infection everytime if its before 24 weeks? Could not funneling occur before 24 weeks and be seen via u/s and suspicion that it could be an incompetent cervix getting ready to rear its ugly head be made. Do you honestly believe that no loss before 24 weeks can be due to a cervical problem? Ever? Thank you for any insight you can give
At Tue, 26 Dec 2000, William D. McIntosh MD wrote:
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