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Re: Definition of term (the end)From: Luis Sanchez-Ramos, M.D. (sanchez@umc8.umc.ufl.edu)Wed Dec 30 06:46:27 1998
At Wed, 30 Dec 1998, Peter Wein wrote: I think the argument is due to the use of the word "completed". As I interpret it, when a patient is 37 weeks (37 0/7) 37 weeks have elapsed since the first day of her LMP. The day after 37 6/7 the patient's gestational age is 38 0/7 weeks. As for the definition of term: ACOG's text on obstetric-gynecologic TERMINOLOGY defines it as from the "beginning" of the 38th week through 41 "completed" weeks of gestation. The "beginning" of the 38th week is 260 days and the "completion" of 41 weeks is 287. I have looked at several texts, and most define term as 38-42 weeks' gestation. I guess 38 weeks means that the woman is one day after 37 6/7 ? I'll try to think about your clarification and maybe you'll convince me. Apparently so far, I've convinced myself. Peter, you don't have to answer this post. I would like to hear your opinion, as well as those of your distinguished european colleagues, on the issue I mentioned earlier: maternal floor infarction of the placenta and possible association with long chain fatty oxidation disorders (fetal). I've already searched MEDLINE, I need insight from other sources.
-- Luis Sanchez-Ramos, MD
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