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Re: Definition of termFrom: Peter Wein (p.wein@obsgyn-mercy.unimelb.EDU.AU)Tue Dec 29 22:17:45 1998
I'm breaking my promise I know > >Fortunately I also own an Obstetrical textbook: according to Johnson >TRB, Walker MA, and Niebyl JR.chapter 8 "Preconception and Perinatal >Care" under assessment of gestational age:....human pregnancy has a >duration of 280 days (280 divided 7 = 40 weeks) measuring from the first >day of the LMP. The standard deviation is 14 days (280 - 14 = 266) 266 >days divided by 7 = 38 weeks. Two-hundred eighty plus 14 days = 294 >(294 divided by 7 = 42 days). So, term is defined as 40 weeks (38-42 >weeks). By the way, the text is OBSTETRICS Normal & Problem Pregnancies >(Churchill Livingstone) it probably has sold more than 100,000 copies. > >LSR > 1. Williams has sold lots more - but this isn't a circulation competition. 2. Who defined term as mean length of gestation plus/minus 1 standard deviation? You aren't addressing the question of definition. If you are going to use a statistical definition the usual definition of normal is more inclusive than 66% or so of the population - and in any case gestation length is not normally distributed - highly skewed. 3. Do you disagree with ICD, WHO, Williams, RCOG, Cochrane, etc etc? A mark of wisdom is to admit when you are wrong. And that I promise is it.
-- Peter Wein
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