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Re: Gyn: OCPs From: Betsy Hyde (elishyde@connix.com) Fri Aug 28 20:07:20 1998 Messages sorted by: [ date ][ thread ][ subject ][ author ] Next message: Paul Prior MD: "Re: OB:Home Births in Australia" Previous message: Betsy Hyde: "Re: inducing amenorrhea" Maybe in reply to: John Robertson M.D.: "Gyn: OCPs" At 6:51 AM 8/28/98, Gail Waldby, MD wrote: > >My impression of this issue is that the OCP's make the patient high risk, so >you treat them as high risk with subcu heparin for non-ortho surgery and >Coumadin for ortho surgery. I don't think you have to discontinue the OCP's >if you use the appropriate prophylaxis for their degree of risk. The average >patient on OCP's would lack one of the major causes of DVT/PE risk which is >age over 40 and increasing age over 40 (that is the 80 year old has a much >greater risk because of age than the 41 year old). I'm not sure I have the answer for this one, but am trying to get it. If OCPs are high risk, and orthopedic surgery is high risk, is coumadin sufficient? Will spend tomorrow w/ my ex- who is an orthopedist *and* spent years with me in the lab researching thromboembolic disease. Will ask him. -- Betsy Hyde CNM Branford, CT Next message: Paul Prior MD: "Re: OB:Home Births in Australia" Previous message: Betsy Hyde: "Re: inducing amenorrhea" Maybe in reply to: John Robertson M.D.: "Gyn: OCPs"

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