Re: anovulation

From: R. Daniel Braun, M.D. (rbraun@iunet.iupui.edu)
Mon Mar 23 18:15:06 1998


What happened to the old "Two year rule" that I grew up with??? Dan

-----Original Message----- From: DoctorJoe <DoctorJoe@aol.com> To: Multiple recipients of list <ob-gyn-l@talk.obgyn.net> Date: Sunday, March 22, 1998 11:32 PM Subject: Re: anovulation

>
>In a message dated 3/22/98 10:19:24 PM, you wrote:
>
><<I see your point here, however, I would like to play devil's advocate.
It >is my understanding that the definition of infertility (ie 1 year of
>inability to conceive with regular unprotected intercourse) is utilized to
>differentiate couples that truly have a problem from those who have not
>become pregnant simply by chance. On a large scale, this will prevent
>over-diagnosis and over-treatment with its consequent risk of multiple
>gestation..
>
>Agree or not?>>
>
>By the book, maybe... However, the mark of a true medical ARTIST (as
opposed >to a medical SCIENTIST) is to have some kind of rapport with the patient,
and >individualize depending. Soooooo.... in SOME cases, say for instance the 36
>year old attorney with no kids and a late-onset childbearing instinct,
let's >say, the "1 year rule" is perhaps not appropriate, if you catch my drift.
>
>Joe P.
>





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