Re: anovulation

From: Malcolm Griffiths (Malcolm@mgriff22.demon.co.uk)
Mon Mar 23 02:33:55 1998


In message <v03007800b13b9168731c@[208.2.63.10]>, "Geffrey H. Klein, MD" <gklein@bcm.tmc.edu> writes >
>I see your point here, however, I would like to play devil's advocate. It
>is my understanding that the definition of infertility (ie 1 year of
>inability to conceive with regular unprotected intercourse) is utilized to
>differentiate couples that truly have a problem from those who have not
>become pregnant simply by chance. On a large scale, this will prevent
>over-diagnosis and over-treatment with its consequent risk of multiple
>gestation..
>
>Agree or not?
>

I think we need to adopt a practical approach. If a woman is trying to concieve and has amenorrhoea how long would you wait before concluding she isn't ovulating? Malcolm Griffiths MD,MRCOG,MFFP,Cert.Mgmnt Obstetrician & Gynaecologist Luton & Dunstable Hosp.,UK. Tel: 01582-497459 (office) Fax: 01582-497376 01525-222849 (home) email: Malcolm@mgriff22.demon.co.uk http://www.obgyn.net/board/griffith.htm "CLINICAL FREEDOM IS THE LAST REFUGE OF THE CLINICALLY INCOMPETENT!" (Someone [1997])





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