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Re: anovulationFrom: Robert J. Woolley (wooll005@tc.umn.edu)Sun Mar 22 21:38:10 1998
In message <v03007800b13b9168731c@[208.2.63.10]> writes: > > I see your point here, however, I would like to play devil's advocate. It > is my understanding that the definition of infertility (ie 1 year of > inability to conceive with regular unprotected intercourse) is utilized to > differentiate couples that truly have a problem from those who have not > become pregnant simply by chance. On a large scale, this will prevent > over-diagnosis and over-treatment with its consequent risk of multiple > gestation.. > > Agree or not? I do, and that is how I was approaching it. OTOH, George has a valid point. To take a ridiculously extreme example, suppose she had had a hysterectomy due to cervical cancer. Would we then wait a year to declare her infertile? Similarly, if we knew that she was truly anovulatory, what are the chances that this is going to change given an extra 4 months? If they are as small as I suspect, then waiting does nothing useful except make me feel like I'm following the cookbook correctly. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------------------------------------------------- Bob Woolley -- --------------------------------------------------------------------------- St. Paul, Minnesota
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