Re: anovulation

From: Robert J. Woolley (wooll005@tc.umn.edu)
Sun Mar 22 21:38:10 1998


In message <v03007800b13b9168731c@[208.2.63.10]> writes: >
> I see your point here, however, I would like to play devil's advocate. It
> is my understanding that the definition of infertility (ie 1 year of
> inability to conceive with regular unprotected intercourse) is utilized to
> differentiate couples that truly have a problem from those who have not
> become pregnant simply by chance. On a large scale, this will prevent
> over-diagnosis and over-treatment with its consequent risk of multiple
> gestation..
>
> Agree or not?

I do, and that is how I was approaching it. OTOH, George has a valid point. To take a ridiculously extreme example, suppose she had had a hysterectomy due to cervical cancer. Would we then wait a year to declare her infertile? Similarly, if we knew that she was truly anovulatory, what are the chances that this is going to change given an extra 4 months? If they are as small as I suspect, then waiting does nothing useful except make me feel like I'm following the cookbook correctly.

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--------------------------------------------------------------------------- Bob Woolley

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St. Paul, Minnesota

"It is because the scientific method actively fosters uncertainty that it must inevitably be subversive of authority.... If these authorities are to be effective propagandists for their diverse practices and causes, then, unlike scientists, they need the self- confident certainty that they know what is good and what is bad. Searching questions about how they know are only unsettling, they threaten to complicate the simple messages which are such an important component of their work."

-- Iain Chalmers





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