Re: anovulation

From: Geffrey H. Klein, MD (gklein@bcm.tmc.edu)
Sun Mar 22 21:18:45 1998


On 3/22/98, George M. Grunert wrote this:

Q> If your diagnosis is anovulation, why make her wait 4 months to Q> 'prove' infertility if your diagnosis means her chances of pregnancy Q> in those 4 months are zero? Lets put the gonads on the other foot: Q> if I were seeing you and your wife, you had not started trying, you Q> were azospermic, and there was a treatment for your azospermia, Q> would I be justified in telling you to wait a year so you'll be Q> 'officially' infertile?

I see your point here, however, I would like to play devil's advocate. It is my understanding that the definition of infertility (ie 1 year of inability to conceive with regular unprotected intercourse) is utilized to differentiate couples that truly have a problem from those who have not become pregnant simply by chance. On a large scale, this will prevent over-diagnosis and over-treatment with its consequent risk of multiple gestation..

Agree or not?

---------------------------------- Geffrey H. Klein, MD ---------------------------------- gklein@bcm.tmc.edu

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