Inflammatory Pap

From: Robert J Woolley (wooll005@tc.umn.edu)
Fri Oct 31 13:59:52 1997


Case for your collective wisdom:

28 year-old medical student, completely asymptomatic throughout the events below, married and monogamous now (though I didn't ask about previous # of partners). Assume her to be reliable for whatever follow-up you recommend.

5/95: Routine Pap, normal.

4/96: Pap with reading "atypical benign (020); Bethesda system--benign pathology", with comment "Inflammation." No treatment instituted. Advised follow-up in 6 months to repeat.

12/96: Pap with precisely the same reading as before.

QUESTION #1: Would you recommend, at this point:

A) Colposcopy B) Empiric treatment of some sort C) Repeat Pap in 1 year D) Repeat Pap sooner (e.g., 4-6 months)

?

I chose D. Which gets us to:

4/97: Normal Pap.

QUESTION #2:

Would you now continue more frequent Paps, revert to annual schedule, or do something else?

(Disclaimer: My medical director is disagreeing with my recommendation after the second "inflammation" pap--thinks colposcopy should have been done then. I obviously disagree, but I doubt that either of us can point to any hard data to support our positions.)





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