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Re: Delivery mode in a patient with a previous rectovaginal fistulaFrom: Rjwoolley@aol.comSun Aug 31 17:03:43 1997
If there has been an effective repair of an urinary or fecal incontinence that was previously invalidating I am absolutely *for* a cesarean. In fact it's only a matter of informed consent. So if the informed woman prefers a VD... ********* But Ron's point (if I may be so bold as to speak for him for the moment; and why not? After all, I've agreed with him 3 times in the last 24 hours, which is some sort of record, and should probably cause one or the other of us to re-examine his positoins....) was, I think, that the condition of the recto-vaginal septum after repair of a fistula is probably not terribly different from that after repair of a 4th degree tear. So if you advocate automatic C-section in the former case, it's logical that you should in the latter as well. Do you? If not, why not?
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