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Re: High risk pregnancyFrom: PELLIS45@aol.comThu Apr 18 11:08:25 2002
In a message dated 4/18/02 11:39:51 AM Eastern Daylight Time, evsono@pipeline.com writes:
> and how would you characterize pregnancy in a 42 year old woman with 6 In my previous posts I referred to normal, healthy women with no pre-existing conditions as NOT being high risk. As opposed to autmatically making *every woman high risk. My assessment (lol) of the above woman would be that, of course, this woman is high risk. My additional question would be to ask the reason for the primary section. This section may have doomed her chances for future vaginal births in light of today's protocol for VBACs. Was this a classicial incision ? The subsequent sections put her at risk for placental problems due to scar tissue. Her age I don't have a problem with nor her mutigravida........perhaps that's because I had four in my forties (40,41,42, 44 1/2, conceived without fertility aids), delivered all four with no meds (VBACs), all four were between 10-11 lbs and the last was a delightful homebirth. So perhaps I am a bit biased when it comes to geriatric moms.........I could be wrong .......... Pam Ellis Doula
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