Re: Cephalocentesis-question--now consent

From: Garry E. Siegel (garrys@mindspring.ocm)
Mon May 29 10:30:31 2000


A >You bet it makes a difference.
>
>In the US, regarding matters of informed consent, the law considers
>verbal consent to be no consent at all. Your case description does not
>suggest any evidence that the situation was such an emergency that
>written consent could not be obtained.
>
>--
>M.A. Pelosi,III, MD
>

Marco:

All of the drivel passed down to us for years says that informed consent is a process, not a form, and that the form only confirms that which was discussed. As recently as this month, I read comments as such from Ken Heland from ACOG legal, in one of the throw aways in which he has a column.

Why do you say that a properly documented (written, dictated) discussion about informed consent isn't sufficient?

Garry

--
Garry E. Siegel, M.D., F.A.C.O.G.
Private Practice
Roswell, GA




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