Re: why do we cramp? Part 2
From: AMD (anonymous@obgyn.net)
Mon, 11 Jan 1999 12:23:59 -0600 (CST)
Just out of curiousity --
Is there any indication that women who tend to have horrible menstrual
cramps are more prone to irritable uterus or preterm labor during
pregnancy? It seems like a woman who is more sensitive than average to
prostaglandins could have contractions at lower levels than other women.
Andrea
At Mon, 11 Jan 1999, William D. McIntosh, MD wrote:
>
>At Sun, 10 Jan 1999, susan wrote:
>>
>>The first time i had my period i was 12 years old. Initially I had no
>>pain or cramping, but as i got older, cramping began. I am now 21 years
>>old. Usually i get heavy cramping the first 2 days, and once in a
>>while, i'll cramp on my 3rd or 4th day. I've noticed that the later
>>cramping occured when i had a blood tissue (?) discharge... (i'm not
>>sure if this is what it's called) Does cramping occur because of
>>horomone fluxuation, or is it related to the cervix? Someone told me
>>that cramps were a very mild version of contractions during child birth.
>>Is this true?
>>
>>--
>>Susan
>>
>The uterus contracts whenever it has something it wishes to expel. If
>that something is a baby, you have labor contractions. It if is blood,
>you have greater or lesser cramps depending on several factors including
>the volume and consistency of the blood (clots hurt worse for example),
>the size of the outlet (one explanation for the general trend of less
>painful periods after vaginal delivery), and an individual woman's
>sensitivity to prostaglandins.
>
>--
>William D. McIntosh, MD
>Clarksville, TN
>
>This is for educational purposes only. It is not intended
> to replace consultation and examination by your physician
> or other health care provider.
>
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