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Re: any evidence to support your statement that colonization of the urine in a prior pregnancy is more important than than colonization of the vagina/rectum in a prior pregnancy whFrom: Garry E. Siegel, M.D. (@obgyn.net)Wed Jan 19 19:28:25 2005
Robert: I have no evidence other than my impression, supported by Hank and Joe (thanks) and documented below. In my answer (and Hank's subsequent post), I didn't realize that she had negative urine cultures THIS pregnancy. My conclusions are thus as clear as mud and supported by obstetric horse sense, i.e. If I had no information about urine THIS pregnancy (which are the circumstances under which my post was written)--treat with Penicillin If I knew the current pregnancy had a negative urine culture (the actual scenario, thanks Efrain)--flip a coin! Actually, I probably would NOT treat in this case, with one caveat: If the mother pressed me, I would have an informed discussion about why antibiotics aren't always good. At the conclusion, I would use antibiotics if WE decided to after the discussion. Garry (see you at NSH in AM--C/S 0730, Cerclage 0930)
At Wed, 19 Jan 2005, Henry Gregor wrote:
>
-- Garry E. Siegel, M.D. Private Practice Roswell, GA
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